If we read Frodo's engagement with the Ring as “psychological rape" then how is it "asexual"? We feel Frodo penetrated and prone. He is being violated. He is actually raped by Orcs.

Scene by scene there's a lot of homoerotic tension. I'd cited a scholar referring the Peter Jackson movies:

“Boromir’s furtive glances at Aragorn communicate his erotic attraction to the man who starts out as his rival and becomes his inspiration.”

I don't know why a book reader wouldn't surmise the same. Tolkien is read to be "asexual" by straight people who are in denial about its basic status as a queer text.

https://medium.com/queertheory/is-lord-of-the-rings-an-lgbt-story-2f641beb49c6#:~:text=Tolkien%20all%20but%20says%20that,off%20for%20days%20by%20himself.%E2%80%9D